General Knowledge is one of the highest-scoring sections in CLAT — and one of the most neglected. Unlike Legal Reasoning or Logical Reasoning, GK rewards consistent daily preparation over months, not last-minute cramming. The 30 questions below are designed to mirror the CLAT exam pattern: passage-informed, rooted in real-world events from 2023 to 2026, and spanning the six core topic areas that appear every year. Each question carries a difficulty tag — Easy, Medium, or Hard — so you can gauge where you stand and which areas need more work.
Attempt all 30 questions first before checking the answer key. Time yourself — aim for about 25 minutes — and note your confidence level for each question. This will help you distinguish between genuine knowledge gaps and careless mistakes.
If you are still thinking of CLAT GK as a set of one-liner trivia questions, you are preparing for the wrong exam. Since the major format overhaul in 2020, the General Knowledge section in CLAT has been entirely passage-based. You read a short paragraph — typically 100-150 words — describing a real event, policy, or development, and then answer 3-5 questions based on it. The passage provides context, but the questions test whether you have background knowledge of the topic.
The overwhelming majority of questions — roughly 80-90% — are drawn from current affairs of the preceding 12-18 months. If CLAT 2027 is held in December, your current affairs window extends from approximately mid-2026 to November 2027. However, landmark events with lasting significance — constitutional amendments, major Supreme Court judgments, international treaties — can appear even if they are older.
The six topic pillars remain consistent every year: Indian Polity and Governance, International Affairs, Economy and Business, Science and Technology, Legal Developments, and Sports and Awards. The questions below cover all six, with difficulty levels calibrated to what you will encounter in the actual exam. Use them as a diagnostic — your performance across categories will reveal exactly where to focus your remaining preparation time.
The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, which provides for reservation of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, is also referred to as:
(a) Women’s Reservation Act (b) Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (c) Mahila Sashaktikaran Amendment (d) Gender Equality Amendment
In 2025, the Supreme Court of India ruled on the sub-classification of Scheduled Castes for the purpose of reservation. What was the majority opinion in State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh?
(a) States cannot sub-classify SCs under any circumstances (b) States can sub-classify SCs to provide preferential treatment to more backward classes within the SC list (c) Only Parliament has the power to sub-classify SCs (d) Sub-classification is permissible only with the approval of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
The "One Nation, One Election" proposal, which received Cabinet approval in 2024, primarily aims to:
(a) Merge the Election Commission with State Election Commissions (b) Conduct simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and all State Assemblies (c) Introduce electronic voting in all panchayat elections (d) Reduce the number of phases in general elections to a maximum of three
Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code, the offence of sedition has been:
(a) Retained with the same definition as Section 124A IPC (b) Replaced by a broader offence of "acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India" (c) Entirely abolished with no corresponding provision (d) Retained but made a bailable offence
The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, launched in 2024, provides subsidies to households for:
(a) Purchasing energy-efficient appliances under BEE star ratings (b) Installing rooftop solar panels to generate up to 300 units of free electricity per month (c) Connecting to the national gas pipeline network (d) Switching from LPG to electric induction cooking systems
The 16th Finance Commission, constituted in 2024, is chaired by:
(a) N.K. Singh (b) Arvind Panagariya (c) Y.V. Reddy (d) Urjit Patel
India assumed the presidency of the G20 in 2023 and hosted the summit in New Delhi. Which country held the G20 presidency in 2024?
(a) South Africa (b) Brazil (c) Italy (d) Saudi Arabia
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) delivered an advisory opinion in July 2024 concerning the legal consequences of Israeli policies in:
(a) The Golan Heights (b) Southern Lebanon (c) The Occupied Palestinian Territory (d) The Sinai Peninsula
In 2024, which country became the newest member of the BRICS grouping alongside Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the UAE?
(a) Argentina (b) Saudi Arabia (c) Indonesia (d) Turkey
The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), announced at the 2023 G20 summit, proposes a connectivity route linking India to Europe via:
(a) Iran, Turkey, and Greece (b) The UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, and Israel (c) Oman, Yemen, and Egypt (d) Qatar, Iraq, and Turkey
Finland and Sweden applied for NATO membership following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. By 2024, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Both countries are now full NATO members (b) Only Finland has joined; Sweden’s application remains pending (c) Both applications were withdrawn after ceasefire negotiations (d) Sweden joined NATO but Finland’s membership was blocked by Turkey
The Union Budget 2025-26 introduced a new income tax regime under which individual taxpayers earning up to a certain amount annually pay zero income tax (after standard deduction and rebate). What is this threshold?
(a) Rs 7 lakh (b) Rs 10 lakh (c) Rs 12 lakh (d) Rs 15 lakh
India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was extended to which of the following countries through a bilateral linkage with their domestic payment system in 2024?
(a) Japan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Germany (d) Australia
The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) began a rate-cutting cycle in early 2025 after holding rates steady for much of 2024. The repo rate was reduced from 6.50% in February 2025. What was the revised repo rate after the April 2025 cut?
(a) 6.25% (b) 6.00% (c) 5.75% (d) 5.50%
The Semiconductor Mission, announced as part of India’s push for domestic chip manufacturing, saw which company begin constructing a major semiconductor fabrication plant in Gujarat in 2024?
(a) Intel (b) TSMC (c) Tata Electronics (in partnership with PSMC) (d) Samsung
India became the fifth-largest economy in the world in 2022, overtaking the United Kingdom. As of 2025, India’s GDP is estimated at approximately:
(a) $2.1 trillion (b) $2.9 trillion (c) $3.9 trillion (d) $5.2 trillion
India’s Chandrayaan-3 mission, which successfully landed on the Moon in August 2023, made India the first country to land a spacecraft near:
(a) The lunar equator (b) The lunar south pole region (c) The far side of the Moon (d) The Sea of Tranquillity
The European Union’s AI Act, which came into force in August 2024, is significant because it is:
(a) The first binding international treaty on AI regulation (b) The world’s first comprehensive legal framework for regulating artificial intelligence (c) A voluntary code of conduct for AI companies operating in Europe (d) A directive banning all generative AI models from the EU market
ISRO’s SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) mission, launched in December 2024, successfully demonstrated:
(a) A reusable launch vehicle landing on a floating platform (b) In-orbit docking of two satellites in space (c) A crewed suborbital flight by Indian astronauts (d) A Mars orbit insertion manoeuvre using ion propulsion
India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, establishes which body as the primary regulator for data protection?
(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) (b) Data Protection Board of India (c) National Informatics Centre (NIC) (d) Cyber Appellate Tribunal
The three new criminal law statutes — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam — replaced the IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act respectively. They came into effect on:
(a) 26 January 2024 (b) 1 July 2024 (c) 15 August 2024 (d) 2 October 2024
In Property Owners Association v. State of Maharashtra (2024), the Supreme Court overruled a long-standing precedent and held that:
(a) The right to private property is now a fundamental right again (b) There is no constitutional obligation on the State to pay market value compensation for compulsory acquisition of private property (c) States cannot impose retrospective property taxes (d) Eminent domain powers can only be exercised by the central government
The Supreme Court’s 2024 judgment in Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India addressed a key federalism question. The Court held that:
(a) The Centre has exclusive power over all mineral taxation (b) States have the legislative competence to levy taxes on mineral-bearing lands (c) Mining royalties are a form of indirect tax covered by GST (d) Mineral rights belong exclusively to indigenous communities under the Fifth Schedule
The Mediation Act, 2023, which came into effect in 2024, aims to:
(a) Replace the Arbitration and Conciliation Act entirely (b) Promote mediation as a preferred method of dispute resolution and provide a legal framework for it (c) Make mediation mandatory before filing any civil suit (d) Establish government-run mediation centres in every district
In Supriyo v. Union of India (2023), the Supreme Court addressed the question of legal recognition of same-sex marriages. The majority held that:
(a) Same-sex couples have a fundamental right to marry under the Special Marriage Act (b) Parliament must legislate to recognise same-sex marriages within one year (c) There is no unqualified right to marry under the Constitution, and the Court cannot direct Parliament to legislate (d) Same-sex marriages are valid under personal law but not under statutory law
At the 2024 Paris Olympics, Neeraj Chopra won a medal in the javelin throw event. What medal did he secure?
(a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Bronze (d) He did not win a medal in Paris
India’s total medal count at the 2024 Paris Olympics was:
(a) 3 medals (b) 5 medals (c) 6 medals (d) 8 medals
The Nobel Peace Prize 2024 was awarded to:
(a) The World Health Organization for pandemic response (b) Nihon Hidankyo, the Japanese organisation of atomic bomb survivors (c) Alexei Navalny (posthumous) for democratic activism (d) The United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA)
The Sahitya Akademi Award for English literature in 2024 was conferred upon:
(a) Amitav Ghosh for Gun Island (b) Arundhati Roy for The Ministry of Utmost Happiness (c) Shashi Deshpande for The Awakening (d) Perumal Murugan for Pyre (translated)
The Dronacharya Award (Lifetime Category) is given in India for excellence in:
(a) Scientific research and innovation (b) Sports coaching (c) Classical music performance (d) Social service in rural areas
Go through each explanation carefully, even for questions you answered correctly. Understanding the reasoning and context behind the answer is what builds lasting GK knowledge — not just knowing the correct option.
The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 is officially called the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam. It reserves one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for women, to be implemented after delimitation based on the first Census conducted after the Act’s commencement.
In the landmark 2024 judgment in State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh, a seven-judge Constitution Bench held by a 6:1 majority that States have the power to sub-classify Scheduled Castes to grant preferential treatment to the more disadvantaged groups within the SC category, overruling the earlier E.V. Chinnaiah (2004) decision.
The One Nation, One Election proposal, examined by the Ram Nath Kovind committee, recommends holding simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. The Union Cabinet approved the proposal in 2024, and bills were subsequently introduced in Parliament.
The BNS, 2023 replaced Section 124A (sedition) of the IPC with Section 152, which criminalises "acts endangering sovereignty, unity and integrity of India." The new provision is broader and covers acts through words, signs, electronic communication, or financial means that excite secession or endanger sovereignty.
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana was launched in February 2024 with an allocation of Rs 75,021 crore. The scheme aims to install rooftop solar systems on one crore households, enabling them to generate up to 300 units of free electricity per month and sell surplus power to distribution companies.
The 16th Finance Commission was constituted in December 2024 under the chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya, former Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog. The Commission will make recommendations for the period 2026-27 to 2030-31 on the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States.
Brazil held the G20 presidency in 2024, following India’s presidency in 2023. The 2024 G20 summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024 under the theme "Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet," with a focus on combating hunger, poverty, and climate change.
In July 2024, the ICJ delivered an advisory opinion stating that Israel’s continued presence in the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East Jerusalem, is unlawful and should be brought to an end as rapidly as possible. The opinion addressed the legal consequences arising from Israel’s policies and practices in these territories.
In January 2024, BRICS expanded to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE as new members, making it BRICS+ with ten member nations. Argentina, which was initially invited, declined to join under President Milei’s administration.
IMEC, announced during the 2023 New Delhi G20 summit, envisions a rail and shipping corridor connecting India to Europe through the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, and Israel. The corridor includes an eastern leg (India to the Arabian Gulf) and a northern leg (Arabian Gulf to Europe), with the aim of facilitating trade and energy connectivity.
Finland joined NATO in April 2023, becoming the 31st member. Sweden followed in March 2024, becoming the 32nd member after Turkey and Hungary lifted their objections. Both countries ended decades of military non-alignment in response to Russia’s full-scale invasion of Ukraine.
The Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, revised the new tax regime slabs such that individuals earning up to Rs 12 lakh per annum (Rs 12.75 lakh for salaried individuals after the Rs 75,000 standard deduction) pay zero income tax due to the enhanced rebate under Section 87A.
India’s UPI has been linked with payment systems of multiple countries. In 2024, the UPI-LankaPay linkage was operationalised, allowing seamless real-time payments between India and Sri Lanka. UPI has also been connected to systems in Singapore (PayNow), Bhutan, and several other nations as part of India’s digital public infrastructure diplomacy.
The RBI MPC cut the repo rate by 25 basis points in February 2025 (from 6.50% to 6.25%) and again by 25 basis points in April 2025 (from 6.25% to 6.00%), citing easing inflation and the need to support growth. This marked a shift from the prolonged pause that had been in effect since February 2023.
Tata Electronics, in partnership with Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC), began constructing India’s first major semiconductor fab in Dholera, Gujarat. The facility, supported by the India Semiconductor Mission, is expected to produce chips for applications including automotive electronics, IoT devices, and consumer electronics.
India’s nominal GDP crossed the $3.5 trillion mark and is estimated at approximately $3.9 trillion as of 2025 (IMF estimates), making it the fifth-largest economy globally behind the United States, China, Germany, and Japan. India is projected to become the third-largest economy by 2027-28.
Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram lander successfully touched down near the lunar south pole (around 69°S latitude) on 23 August 2023, making India the fourth country to achieve a soft lunar landing and the first to land near the south polar region. The Pragyan rover subsequently conducted experiments analysing the lunar surface composition.
The EU AI Act, adopted in 2024, is the world’s first comprehensive legal framework for regulating artificial intelligence. It classifies AI systems by risk level — from minimal to unacceptable — and imposes requirements accordingly. High-risk AI systems face mandatory transparency and safety obligations, while certain AI practices (such as social scoring) are banned entirely.
SPADEX, launched on 30 December 2024, successfully demonstrated in-orbit docking of two small satellites (SDX01 and SDX02) in January 2025. This made India the fourth country to achieve in-space docking capability, after the US, Russia, and China. The technology is critical for future missions including the Bharatiya Antariksh Station and lunar sample return.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 (DPDP Act) establishes the Data Protection Board of India as the adjudicatory body responsible for enforcing the Act’s provisions. The Board handles complaints regarding data breaches and non-compliance by data fiduciaries, and can impose significant financial penalties for violations.
The three new criminal laws came into force on 1 July 2024, replacing the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (1860), Code of Criminal Procedure (1973), and Indian Evidence Act (1872). Key changes include the introduction of community service as a punishment, mandatory videography of crime scenes, and time-bound trials for certain offences.
In Property Owners Association v. State of Maharashtra (2024), a nine-judge Constitution Bench overruled the 1982 Sanjeev Coke judgment and held that Article 31C (as it stood before the 44th Amendment) remains valid. The Court clarified that while the right to compensation exists, the State is not constitutionally obligated to pay market value for property acquired for public purposes.
In the landmark Mineral Area Development Authority (2024) judgment, a nine-judge Constitution Bench held 8:1 that royalty on minerals is not a tax, and that States retain the legislative competence to tax mineral-bearing lands under Entry 49, List II of the Seventh Schedule. This overruled the 1989 India Cement judgment and has significant implications for State revenues from the mining sector.
The Mediation Act, 2023 provides a standalone legal framework for mediation in India. It promotes mediation (including online mediation) as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism, provides for the establishment of the Mediation Council of India, and allows mediated settlement agreements to be enforceable as court judgments. Pre-litigation mediation is encouraged but not mandatory in most cases.
In Supriyo v. Union of India (2023), the five-judge Constitution Bench unanimously held that queer persons have a right to form unions and cohabit, but the majority (3:2) ruled that there is no unqualified fundamental right to marry. The Court held it could not direct Parliament to amend the Special Marriage Act and that the legislature must address the question of marriage equality.
Neeraj Chopra won the silver medal in javelin throw at the 2024 Paris Olympics with a throw of 89.45 metres. Pakistan’s Arshad Nadeem won the gold with an Olympic record throw of 92.97 metres. This added to Neeraj’s 2020 Tokyo Olympics gold medal, making him India’s most decorated Olympic track-and-field athlete.
India won 6 medals at the 2024 Paris Olympics: one silver (Neeraj Chopra, javelin) and five bronze medals — Manu Bhaker (10m air pistol and 10m air pistol mixed team with Sarabjot Singh), Swapnil Kusale (50m rifle 3 positions), the Indian hockey team (men’s hockey), and Aman Sehrawat (57kg freestyle wrestling).
The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo, the Japanese organisation of atomic bomb survivors (Hibakusha) from Hiroshima and Nagasaki. The organisation was recognised for its decades of efforts to achieve a world free of nuclear weapons through witness testimony and advocacy for the nuclear taboo.
Shashi Deshpande received the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 for English for her novel The Awakening. A celebrated Indian author known for her sensitive portrayals of middle-class Indian women, Deshpande has previously won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1990 for That Long Silence.
The Dronacharya Award is India’s highest honour for sports coaches. Named after Dronacharya, the legendary teacher from the Mahabharata, it is conferred by the President of India in two categories: regular and lifetime. The award recognises coaches who have produced medal-winning athletes at international competitions including the Olympics, Commonwealth Games, and Asian Games.
Set a timer for 25 minutes and attempt all 30 questions without pausing to look anything up. CLAT rewards speed as much as accuracy — you get roughly 50-55 seconds per question in the GK section. Practising under time pressure builds the exam-day reflex of reading quickly, eliminating implausible options, and committing to an answer without overthinking.
After checking the answer key, categorise every incorrect answer: was it a knowledge gap (you had never encountered the topic), a confusion error (you knew the topic but mixed up details), or a reading error (you misread the question or options)? Knowledge gaps require more reading in that topic area. Confusion errors require revision. Reading errors require slower, more careful practice. Most students treat all mistakes the same way — this is why they repeat them.
For every question you got wrong or were unsure about, write a 2-3 line note summarising the key fact. Organise these notes by category (polity, economy, international, legal, science, sports). Review this sheet every Sunday. By the time you have worked through several hundred practice questions over weeks, your revision sheet becomes a personalised current affairs compendium that targets precisely the areas where your knowledge is weakest.
After completing this set, note your accuracy in each of the six categories. If you scored 5/6 in Indian Polity but 1/5 in International Affairs, your study plan for the next two weeks should heavily weight international current affairs. GK preparation is most efficient when it is diagnostic-driven — the questions tell you what to study, not the other way around.
Return to these 30 questions after a fortnight of focused study. Your goal is not 30/30 — it is to see measurable improvement in the categories where you previously struggled. If you scored 18/30 the first time and 25/30 two weeks later, your preparation strategy is working. If a specific category is still weak, it needs a different approach — perhaps switching from passive reading to active note-taking or flashcard-based revision.
25–30
Excellent
Your GK base is strong. Focus on maintaining consistency and covering niche areas.
18–24
Good
Solid foundation. Targeted reading in weak categories will push you above 25.
12–17
Average
Noticeable gaps exist. Commit to daily newspaper reading and weekly topic revision.
Below 12
Needs Work
Major knowledge gaps. Start with a monthly current affairs capsule and build from there.
CLAT typically includes 28–32 questions in the General Knowledge section, which accounts for roughly 25% of the total paper. These questions are passage-based — you read a short passage about a current event and answer 3–5 questions linked to it. This means around 6–8 passages appear in the GK section, each followed by a cluster of questions.
CLAT GK is overwhelmingly current affairs-based. While static GK concepts (Indian polity, basic economics, geography) occasionally appear as context within passages, the questions test your awareness of recent events, government policies, international developments, and legal news. Roughly 80–90% of GK questions are rooted in events from the preceding 12–18 months.
CLAT current affairs questions primarily cover the 12–18 months before the exam date. If the exam is in December 2027, events from approximately June 2026 to November 2027 are the core window. However, landmark events — such as major Supreme Court judgments or constitutional amendments — from earlier periods can still appear if they remain legally or politically significant.
A daily newspaper — The Hindu or The Indian Express — is the single most effective source. Supplement it with a monthly current affairs magazine (Pratiyogita Darpan or similar) and a curated monthly PDF or capsule from your coaching or preparation platform. For structured practice, use topic-wise GK question sets that simulate the CLAT passage-based format rather than one-liner quizzes.
Scoring full marks requires three habits: (1) daily newspaper reading with note-taking for at least 6 months, (2) weekly revision of your notes organized by topic — polity, economy, international, legal, science, sports — and (3) regular practice with passage-based GK questions under timed conditions. Most top scorers also maintain a one-page weekly summary sheet that condenses the most important events.
GK is not the hardest section in terms of reasoning difficulty — that distinction usually goes to Legal Reasoning or Logical Reasoning. However, GK is often considered the most unpredictable section because it depends on your awareness of specific events. You cannot logic your way to a correct answer if you have never heard of the event. This is why consistent daily reading over months is non-negotiable.
You do not need to memorise exact dates, but you should know approximate timelines (which quarter or month) and the key people involved in major events. CLAT passages provide context, so recognition is more important than pure recall. Focus on understanding the significance of events — why a particular judgment matters, what a policy aims to achieve — rather than rote memorisation of dates.
Use the topic-wise method: categorise your notes under 6–8 headings (polity, economy, international, legal, science, sports, environment, awards). Revise one category per day on a rotating basis. Create flashcards or one-liners for key facts and review them weekly. In the last month before the exam, shift to solving passage-based GK questions daily and reviewing only your error log.